Latest Microsoft 70-697 PDF Questions

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70-697 pdf questions

Latest 70-697 dumps exam questions and answers (10Q&As)

QUESTION 9
A service provider has a Resilient Ethernet Protocol ring running as a metro backbone between its locations in one city. A customer wants to connect one site with
one box redundant to the Resilient Ethernet Protocol ring at two different service provider locations. How can this be done without producing any Layer 2 loops
within the network design?
A. Spanning tree at the service provider side only must be enabled.
B. Spanning tree at the customer side only must be enabled.
C. Flex Links at the service provider side only must be enabled.
D. Flex Links at the customer side only must be enabled.
E. EtherChannel at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled.
F. Spanning tree at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled.
G. Flex Links at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
352-001 dumps
Your company designed a network to allow server VLANs in a data center to span all access switches. In the design, Layer 3 VLAN interfaces and HSRP areconfigured on the aggregation switches. In which three ways should the design of the STP domain be optimized for server and application performance? (Choose
three.)
A. Use loop guard on access ports.
B. Use PortFast on access ports.
C. Use root guard on access ports.
D. Align Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding paths.
E. Use BPDU Skew Detection on access ports.
F. Explicitly determine root and backup root bridges.
Correct Answer: BDF
10

QUESTION 11
You have created a network design that has two point-to-point Metro Ethernet circuits extending a single production VLAN between two data centers. Under
normal circumstances, one circuit will carry traffic and spanning tree will block the other. If the company wants you to make use of both circuits to carry production
traffic, which two technologies and features will you investigate to integrate into your network design? (Choose two.)
A. EtherChannel
B. MST
C. Multichassis EtherChannel
D. PVST+
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
Voice traffic between two campus enterprise networks is growing. The network designers decide to add a second 10-Mb Metro Ethernet service parallel to their
original 10-Mb service in order to provide more bandwidth and diversity. The QoS profile will be the same on the new 10-Mb service due to the voice stability on
the first Metro Ethernet link. When the second link is added to the OSPF domain, which traffic design consideration would have the most impact on the voice traffic
when both links are active?
A. per-destination IP address basis
B. per-flow basis
C. per-packet basis
D. per-source IP address basis
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You work as a network designer for a company that is replacing their Frame Relay WAN with an MPLS VPN service, where the PE-to-CE routing protocol is BGP.
The company has 3000 routes in their distribution routers, and they would like to advertise their access routers through the MPLS network. Their service provider,
however, only supports 1000 prefixes per VRF. Which two design solutions can be applied to ensure that your access routers will be able to reach all devices in
your network? (Choose two.)
A. Use prefix lists on your distribution routers to control which routes are sent to the MPLS network.
B. On your distribution routers, configure null routes and aggregate routes for the prefixes in your network.
C. Configure your distribution routers to send a default route to the MPLS network.
D. Summarize the routes on the MPLS WAN interfaces of your distribution routers.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
You are designing a network that will run EIGRP over a Metro Ethernet service that does not employ a link-loss technology. What will be the impact on
convergence if there is a break in the end-to-end Layer 2 connectivity within the service provider network?
A. The routers will immediately lose their adjacencies and converge.
B. The routing protocol will not converge until the hold timers have expired.
C. The switch ports connected to the router will go down and the routers will immediately converge.
D. The VLAN on the switches will go inactive, the ports associated on the switch will go down, and the routers will immediately converge.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Refer to the 352-001 dumps exhibit.
352-001 dumps
Acme Corporation hired you as a network designer to upgrade their network so that it supports IPv4 and IPv6 multicast. Which two protocols are needed on the
LAN switch? (Choose two.)
A. PIM sparse mode
B. IGMP snooping
C. PIM snooping
D. Source Specific Multicast
E. MLD snooping
Correct Answer: BE
15

QUESTION 16
A new video multicast application is deployed in the network. The application team wants to use the 239.0.0.1 multicast group to stream the video to users. They
want to know if this choice will impact the existing multicast design. What impact will their choice have on the existing multicast design?
A. Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, a flood of PIM packets that have to be processed by the CPU and hosts will be sent by the routers in the
network.
B. Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, the rendezvous point has to send out constant group updates that will have to be processed by the CPU and
hosts.
C. The multicast application sends too many packets into the network and the network infrastructure drops packets.
D. The 239.0.0.1 group address maps to a system MAC address, and all multicast traffic will have to be sent to the CPU and flooded out all ports.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
A customer is using a service provider to provide a WAN backbone for a 30-site network. In establishing the network, the customer must work within these
constraints:
The customer has a self-managed MPLS backbone.
The VPLS WAN backbone of the service provider does not support PIM snooping.
Multicast VPN must be used for multicast support inside some VRFs.
What can the customer do so that multicast traffic is NOT flooded to all sites?
A. Configure static GRE tunnels and run the MPLS and multicast VPN inside these GRE tunnels.
B. Use Label Switched Multicast for the multicast transport.
C. Use PIM-SSM as the multicast routing protocol with IETF Rosen Draft multicast VPN.
D. Configure a static mapping between multicast addresses and MAC addresses.
E. Use GET VPN to encrypt the multicast packets inside the WAN.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What are two design advantages to using virtual port channel? (Choose two.)
A. enhanced system availability through multiple systems
B. reduced Spanning Tree Protocol convergence time
C. loop management without use of Spanning Tree Protocol
D. ability to use Spanning Tree Protocol blocked ports to forward traffic
E. enhanced ability to recover from Spanning Tree Protocol changes
Correct Answer: AC

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2019 Latest ADM-201 Exam Preparation Material

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Exam Code: ADM-201
Exam Name: The Salesforce.com Certified Administrator
Updated:Jan 18, 2019

ADM-201 exam preparation material

Latest ADM-201 dumps exam questions and answers (8Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Cisco TMS is unable to manage endpoints and an engineer is required to capture logs to determine the
cause. What is the menu path that the engineer should follow to capture and download logs from Cisco
TMS?
A. Administrative Tools > Diagnostics > TMS Tickets
B. Administrative Tools > TMS Server Maintenance > Download Diagnostic Files
C. Systems > Navigator > Diagnostics > Download Diagnostic Files
D. Systems > Navigator > TMS Logs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A Cisco TelePresence VCS displays this alarm: “Root password is set to default.” How can this security
warning be addressed?
A. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > User Settings, and
change the root password.
B. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Administrator and issue the command xconfig
root set passwd.
C. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command set password, and
enter the new password when prompted.
D. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command passwd, and enter the
new password when prompted.
E. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > System Settings, and
change the root password.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not
automatically listed in the touch panel. What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which two methods are used to navigate the menu options of an auto attendant on an MCU? (Choose
two.)
A. KPML
B. DTMF
C. PiP
D. PoP
E. FECC
F. SCCP
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after the
respective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome?
(Choose two.)
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which codec represents video that is supported by Cisco TelePresence endpoints?
A. H.263
B. H.323
C. H.264
D. H.262
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
210-065
The numbers on the floor plan represent the horizontal average lux readings for nine different room areas
Considering Cisco best practices, what can you conclude about the lighting conditions?
A. Only three areas meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
B. Only three areas do not meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
C. All areas meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
D. The areas do not meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-346
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Updated: Jan 17, 2019

70-346 exam dumps

Latest 70-346 dumps exam questions and answers (15Q&As)

QUESTION 24
Which two GDOI encryption keys are used within a GET VPN network? (Choose two.)
A. key encryption key
B. group encryption key
C. user encryption key
D. traffic encryption key
300-209 exam Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
Which type of VPN is being configured, based on the partial configuration snippet?
A. DMVPN with dual hub
B. GET VPN with dual group member
C. FlexVPN backup gateway
D. GET VPN with COOP key server
E. FlexVPN load balancer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
Which command specifies the path to the Host Scan package in an ASA AnyConnect VPN?
A. csd hostscan path image
B. csd hostscan image path
C. csd hostscan path
D. hostscan image path

QUESTION: 27
Which of the following Quality of Service (QoS) techniques uses the precedence bits in the IP
header?
A. RSVP
B. 802.1p
C. IntServ
D. DiffServ
300-209 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION: 28
During the call setup phase, call setup information is transmitted as non ASCII-based digital
information to a gatekeeper, while the media stream is transmitted directly from endpoint to
endpoint. Which of the following protocols does this describe?
A. SIP
B. Q.931
C. H.323
D. H.320
Answer: C

QUESTION: 29
Which result will occur if the Adaptive Differential Pulse Code Modulation (ADPCM) is
reduced from 32 Kbps to 16 Kbps?
A. Voice quality degrades as compression increases
B. Voice quality improves as compression increases.
C. Voice quality degrades as compression decreases.
D. Voice quality is unaffected by compression rates.
300-209 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION: 30
A customer is experiencing sporadic problems with clicking during conversations, poor quality
on fax transmissions, and modems failing to connect. Which of the following is the most likely
cause?
A. The T1 clock reference is incorrect.B. The frame relay network is congested.
C. The channels have been provisioned incorrectly.
D. The D channel signaling information is incorrect.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 31
Which of the following is an international standard for the electrical interface between Data
Terminal Equipment (DTE) and Data Communications Equipment (DCE)?
A. V.24
B. DB25
C. RJ-11
D. 802.11b
300-209 vce Answer: A

QUESTION: 32
A customer has two T3 lines and wants to provide for additional bandwidth. What is the
minimum Optical Carrier level that should be selected to replace them with a single circuit?
A. OC1
B. OC3
C. OC12
D. OC48
Answer: B

QUESTION: 33
What is the result of attenuation?
A. Echo
B. Jitter
C. Signal strength increases
D. Signal strength decreases
300-209 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION 34
The best dietary advice a nurse can give to a woman diagnosed with mild pregnancy- induced
hypertension is to:
A. Follow a strict low salt diet
B. Restrict fluid intake
C. Increase protein intakeD. Maintain a well-balanced diet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
A nurse has been working in a general hospital on the same medical unit for 6 years. The Behavioral Unit
is desperately short staffed and the nurse is asked to work her shift in this other unit. What would be the
expected response of the nurse to this request?
A. “I will go to the unit and hopefully the behavioral health staff members will assist me with my
assignment.”
B. “I cannot go. I have no previous behavioral health experience. I do not want to reduce the quality of
patient care.”
C. “I have no previous behavioral health experience. I am willing to go and help with any duties that are
similar to those I perform on my unit.”
D. “I should not be expected to float to another unit without a proper orientation. I will fill out an incident
report if I am sent there.”
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
A patient is to receive 25mg/hr of an aminophylline infusion. The solution prepared by the pharmacy
contains 500mg of aminophylline in 1000ml of D5W. How many milligrams are available per ml?
A. 0.25 mg/ml
B. 0.5 mg/ml
C. 1 mg/ml
D. 2 mg/ml
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
A patient with pneumonia is coughing up purulent thick sputum. Which one of the following nursing
measures is most likely helpful to loosen the secretions?
A. Postural drainage
B. Breathing humidified air
C. Percussion over the affected lung
D. Coughing and deep breathing exercises
300-209 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
A 21 year old woman is being treated for injuries sustained in a car accident. The patient has a central
venous pressure (CVP) line insitu. The nurse recognizes that CVP measurements:
A. Estimate Cardiac output
B. Assess myocardial workload
C. Determine need for fluid replacement
D. Determine ventilation – perfusion mismatch
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
A construction worker was brought to the emergency department and admitted with the diagnosis of heat
stroke due to strenuous physical activity during hot weather conditions.
Which action should the nurse take?
A. Immediately immerse the patient in cold water to reduce the patient’s temperature
B. Administer an antipyretic such as aspirin or acetaminophen
C. Place ice packs to the neck, axillae, scalp and groin
D. Encourage foods and oral fluids that contain carbohydrates and electrolytes
300-209 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Thirty minutes after starting a blood transfusion a patient develops tachycardia and tachypnea and
complains of chills and low back pain. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as characteristic of:
A. Circulatory overload
B. Mild allergy
C. Febrile response
D. Hemolytic reaction
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 41
As a part of the treatment given to a child with leukemia the child is placed on reverse barrier isolation to:
A. Protect the child from injury
B. Protect the child from infectious agents
C. Provide the child with a quiet environment
D. Keep the child away from other children
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 42
The rationale for having the patient void before an abdominal paracentesis procedure is to:
A. Minimize discomfort
B. Avoid abdominal distention
C. Prevent bladder puncture
D. Reduce infection rate
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 43
The best time for the nurse to teach an anxious patient about the patient controlled analgesic (PCA) pump
would be during which of the following stages of patient care?
A. Post-operative
B. Pre-operative
C. Intraoperative
D. Post anesthesia
300-209 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 44
To maintain the airway and promote respiratory function, the best position for the nurse to place the
unconscious patient in the Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU) is:
A. Supine
B. Lateral
C. Trendelenberg
D. Fowler’s

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300-208 dumps exam

Latest 300-208 Dumps questions and answers (13Q&As)

QUESTION 9
– (Topic 18)
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client
1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network
addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and
device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241
address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the global configuration, delete the no ip dhcp use vrf connected command.
B. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the default -router 10.2.1.254 command and enter the
default-router 10.1.4.5 command.
C. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the network 10.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 command and enter
the network 10.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 command.
D. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, issue the no ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.253
command and enter the ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.2 command.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
– (Topic 16)
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’. After several changes
to the network addressing, routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that the loopback
address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2(2026::102:1).
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
The 300-135 dumps implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network
addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and
device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241
address. Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest
command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12
command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
– (Topic 10)
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client
1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network
addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and
device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241
address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat outside command.
C. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255
command.
D. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255
command.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
– (Topic 15)
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client
1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network
addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and
device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241
address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Two Steelhead appliances deployed in-path at different offices cannot auto-discover each other. What
technique can be used to “force” the two Steelhead appliances to optimize traffic between each other?
A. Change the TCP port the Steelhead appliances use for their in-path connections to 7810
B. Disable the auto-discovery feature on the Steelhead appliances
C. Create auto-discovery rules that map to each Steelhead appliance’s in-path IP address
D. Create fixed-target rules on each Steelhead appliance using the in-path IP address of the other
Steelhead appliance, and use port 7800
E. Use the “enable probe” command from the CLI
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Three Steelhead appliances SH1, SH2, and SH3 are deployed as shown in the exhibit. They are all using
the default auto-discovery rule for optimization. However, CLIENT99 experiences a failure when attempting
to access either the HTTP or FTP service on SERVER88. CLIENT99 was able to access these services
prior to the deployment of the three Steelhead appliances.Which of the following choices would most likely correct the problem?
A. Remove SH2. Use only SH1 and SH3.
B. Remove SH1. Use only SH2 and SH3.
C. Turn on Connection Forwarding between SH1 and SH2
D. Turn on Connection Forwarding between SH1 and SH3
E. Turn on Connection Forwarding between SH2 and SH3
300-135 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
In creating a customized Steelhead Mobile client MSI package, what is the Group ID (GID) used for?
A. Organization of groups
B. Configuring individual Steelhead Mobile client users with different license groups
C. Configuration of fixed-target rule groups
D. Configuration of pass-through rule groups
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
What is configured in an Acceleration policy? (Choose the best answer)
A. Redundant Steelhead Mobile Controllers
B. In-path rules
C. Group IDs
D. Port labels
300-135 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What is configured in an Endpoint policy? (Choose the best answer)
A. Redundant Steelhead Mobile Controllers
B. In-path rules
C. Group IDs
D. Port labels
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
What ports are required for proper operation of the Steelhead Mobile client?
A. 7800 outbound, 7801 inbound, 7870 outbound
B. 7800 inbound, 7870 inbound, 7870 outbound
C. 7800 inbound, 7801 outbound, 7870 outbound
D. None of the above
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
A Steelhead Mobile client can be configured to operate in visible or invisible mode (show client in system
tray parameter). What part of the configuration is this setting included?
A. Acceleration policy
B. Authentication policy
C. Endpoint policy
D. Port labels
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
What are the SSL trusts that must be configured for a Steelhead Mobile client to successfully optimize SSL
traffic? (Select 2)
A. Steelhead Mobile clients trust Steelhead Mobile Controller
B. Server-side Steelhead trusts Steelhead Mobile clients
C. Steelhead Mobile clients trusts client-side Steelhead
D. Client-side Steelhead, server-side Steelhead, Steelhead Mobile clients, and CMC appliance all must
trust each other
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 22
If the VPN concentrator that a Steelhead Mobile client connects to is not in path with a Steelhead
appliance, what changes could be made to the Riverbed infrastructure to allow optimization from the
Steelhead Mobile clients?
A. Enable out-of-path support on server-side Steelhead
B. Add a fixed-target rule in the Steelhead Mobile Acceleration policy
C. Enable peering rule in Steelhead Mobile client
D. B and C
E. A and B
Correct Answer: E

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300-070 exams with Exam Questions and Answers Below (18Qs&As)

QUESTION 1
Which three options are considered common features of Cisco WebEx solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Document, application, and desktop sharing
B. Available in 226 languages
C. Scheduled and ad-hoc meetings
D. Consistent, cross-platform experience
E. Third-party voice included
F. Per-user attention status indicator
700-505 exam Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 2
Which two benefits will customers achieve if they upgrade to a properly configured Cisco Borderless
Network? (Choose two.)
A. New application and service deployment is completely automated.
B. Network availability increases and downtime decreases
C. Security becomes less difficult to achieve
D. All potential failures will be eliminated.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
Which three options are benefits to the partner in the Cisco Partner Program? (Choose three.)
A. drives growth and profitability
B. results in more individual Cisco career certifications (that is, CCNA, CCNP)
C. differentiates your business
D. provides access to promotions and incentives
E. partners receive free gear when they achieve certification
F. partner program enrollment increases
700-505 dumps Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 4
Which three options are benefits that a customer can achieve by implementing a Cisco borderless wired
wireless solution? (Choose three.)
A. Automatically provision SSIDs based on VLAN ID
B. Allow more than 50 users per access point to stream video content.
C. Determine the number of devices and users on the network.
D. Enforce policies to manage network access and keep data secure.
E. Network scalability to meet increased traffic and growing number of devices.
F. Prevent non-authorized devices from seeing SSIDs.
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 5
Which incentive program gives an up-front discount to partners with registered opportunities?
A. Cisco Partner Incentive Program
B. Value Incentive Program
C. Solution Incentive Program
D. Opportunity Incentive Program
700-505 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which option is the back-end security ecosystem that detects threat activity, researches and analyzes
those threats: and provides real-time updates along with best practices to allow organizations to be
informed and protected?
A. Threat Operation Center
B. Secure Infrastructure Optimization
C. Monitor Analysis Response System
D. Security Intelligence Operations
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which Cisco Catalyst model should you recommend to a customer that is considered a bargain buyer?
A. 2960
B. 3750
C. 300
D. 1900
700-505 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which two IT solution characteristics do small and midsize business customers prefer? (Choose two)
A. simple devices that work well together right out of the box
B. enterprise-grade functionality; complexity is not a concern
C. flexibility; devices can be added easily in the future
D. solutions that will increase employee morale
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 9
Which two products belong to the Cisco Data Center portfolio? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C220
B. Cisco WLC 2504
C. Cisco SVC 320
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
700-505 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 10
Which Cisco series switch is stackable and provides solid baseline switching?
A. 200 Series
B. 300 Series
C. 500 Series
D. 100 Series
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which two options are Cisco Telepresence multipurpose endpoint solutions for small and midsizebusiness? (Choose two.)
A. Third-party videoconferencing endpoint
B. Cisco MX200
C. Cisco VCS
D. Cisco Profile 42
700-505 dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12
Which three statements about the Cisco ISR G2 security solutions are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco ISR G2 security should only be deployed after a customer has rejected deploying Cisco ASA security.
B. Web Security Connected is delivered as a service module.
C. Software upgrades and reboots are needed to install security licenses.
D. Web Security Connected integrates with the Cisco ASA firewalls and the Cisco AnyConnect secure mobility client.
E. Cisco IPS network module can be added to the Cisco 2900 and 3900 Series routers.
F. Software licenses for security services include; IPsec/SSL VPN, Firewall, IPS.
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 13
Which Cisco Partner Sales Tool provides a single searchable location for sales guidance and technical details to help differentiate Cisco solutions from the competition?
A. Cisco Commerce Workspace
B. Competitive Portal
C. Quick Product Reference Guide
D. Cisco Discovery Service
700-505 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
In which two ways can Cisco solutions help resolve customer business challenges? (Choose two.)
A. by supporting BYOD and increased mobility
B. by providing a multisystem infrastructure that must be monitored and maintained by the IT staff
C. by providing improved collaboration and communication tools
D. by providing a complex borderless solution
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 15
Which three options are customer benefits of implementing a Cisco Borderless switching solution?(Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree
B. Smart Install
C. AutoSmartPorts
D. Smart CallHome
E. Solar-powered
F. Uninterruptable power
700-505 vce Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 16
Which option is an online conferencing solution that allows participants to see; hear and share content and applications in real time?
A. Cisco Unity
B. Cisco ISR with Conferencing service module
C. Borderless Networks
D. WebEx meetings
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco Services-Ready Engine to deploy services on demand? (Choose two.)
A. 3900 Series
B. 2900 Series
C. 2800 Series
D. 800 Series
700-505 exam Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 18
Which three business challenges do customers face that are addressed by Cisco architectural solutions?(Choose three.)
A. Guarantee reliability.
B. Improve workforce productivity.
C. Hire more staff.
D. Increase cash flow.
E. Deliver first-class offerings and experience to their clients.
F. Reduce total cost of ownership while maximizing the contribution of IT.
Correct Answer: BEF
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

This specialization program is initiated for the Cisco 300-070 exams partners. The curriculum of the architectural strategy offered by Cisco in this specialization program involves the Cisco partners to sell out strategies across all the technologies. Many concepts dumps have been included in this program like the Collaboration, Borderless networks and the Data center technologies.

Specialist 300-320 Dumps with Exam Questions and Answers

Which material is useful for the Cisco exam? Testprepwell Cisco 300-320 Dumps Certification Braindumps, High Pass Rate Cisco 300-320 Dumps Study Material With 100% Pass Rate, Pass Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks –testprepwell 300-115 Dumps.
300-320 dumps

Specialist Testprepwell Cisco 300-320 Dumps with Exam Questions and Answers Below (25-40))

QUESTION 25
VLAN maps have been configured on switch R1. Which of the following actions are taken in a VLAN map that does not contain a match clause?
A. Implicit deny feature at end of list.
B. Implicit denyfeature at start of list.
C. Implicit forward feature at end of list
D. Implicit forward feature at start of list.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Users of PC-1 experience slow connection when a webpage is requested from the server. To increase bandwidth, the network engineer configured an EtherChannel on interfaces Fa1/0 and Fa0/1 of the server farm switch, as shown here: Server_Switch#sh etherchannel load-balance EtherChannel Load-Balancing Operational State (src-mac):
Non-IP: Source MAC address
IPv4: Source MAC address
IPv6: Source IP address
Server_Switch#
However,traffic is still slow. Which action can the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Disable EtherChannel load balancing.
B. Upgrade the switch IOS to IP services image.
C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.
D. Contact Cisco TAC to report a bug onthe switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about the HSRP priority are true? (Choose two)
A. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority priority-value global configuration command must be used.
B. The default priority of a router is zero (0).
C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router.
E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which statement about switch S1 is true?
A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port- channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port- channel interface using an open standard protocol.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of setting GLBP weighting at 105 with lower threshold 90 and upper threshold 100 on this router?
300-115 dumps
A. Only if both tracked objects are up will this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
B. Only if the state of both tracked objects goes down will this router release its status as an AVF for group 1.
C. If both tracked objects go down and then one comes up, but the other remains down, this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
D. This configuration is incorrect and will not have any effect on GLBP operation.
E. If the state of one tracked object goes down then this router will release its status as an AVF for group 1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
A network administrator configures 10 extended VLANs ranging from VLANs 3051 to 3060 in an enterprise network. Which version of VTP supports these extended VLANs?
A. version 1
B. version 2
C. version 3
D. VTP does not recognize extended VLANs.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
What is the default HSRP priority?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 120
D. 1024
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Youhave been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
300-115 dumps
ImageData src=”images/300-115_img_38.jpg”/>
You are adding new VLANs. VLAN500 and VLAN600 to thetopology in such way that you need to configure SW1 as primary root for VLAN 500 and secondary for VLAN 600 and SW2 as primary root for VLAN 600 and secondary for VLAN 500. Which configuration step is valid?
A. Configure VLAN 500 andamp; VLAN 600 on both SW1 andamp;SW2
B. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 only
C. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW2 only
D. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 ,SW2 and SW4
E. On SW2; configure vtp mode as off and configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600; configure back to vtp server mode.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
A network engineer is setting up a new switched network. The network is expected to grow and add many new VLANs in the future. Which Spanning Tree Protocol should be used to reduce switch resources and managerial burdens that are associated with multiple spanning-tree instances?
A. RSTP
B. PVST
C. MST
D. PVST+
E. RPVST+
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the accessswitch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
A network engineer changes the default native VLAN to VLAN 999. After applying the settings on theuplinks to the core switches, the switch control traffic, such as CDP and VTP, is no longer working. The standard configuration is used for each uplink. What is wrong with the configuration?
A. The interface is administratively down.
B. The encapsulationtype is incorrect.
C. The switchport mode trunk command should be first in the output.
D. The native VLAN is not present on the trunk.
E. The control traffic must be manually enabled on the new native VLAN.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Which private VLAN access port belongs to the primary VLAN and can communicate with all interfaces,including the community and isolated host ports?
A. promiscuous port
B. isolated port
C. community port
D. trunk port
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships. What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?
A. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
B. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
A server with a statically assigned IP address is attached to a switch that is provisionedfor DHCP snooping. For more protection against malicious attacks, the network team is considering enabling dynamic ARP inspection alongside DHCP snooping. Which solution ensures that the server maintains network reachability in the future?
A. Disable DHCPsnooping information option.
B. Configure a static DHCP snooping binding entry on the switch.
C. Trust the interface that is connected to the server with the ip dhcp snooping trust command.
D. Verify the source MAC address of all untrusted interfaces withip dhcp snooping verify mac-address command.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Which option describes a limitation of LLDP?
A. LLDP cannot provide information about VTP.
B. LLDP does not support TLVs.
C. LLDP can discover only Windows servers.
D. LLDP can discover up to two devices per port.
Correct Answer: A

The practical exam for Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks assesses the candidate’s ability to lead a virtual classroom session with live participants using the techniques and best practices of skilled virtual instructors. Candidates submit a 120-minute Cisco recording in which they demonstrate the skills listed in the practical exam topics. Many companies that take a job promotion or increase salary for you will refer to how many gold content your authentication certificates have.The recordings receive a Pass or Fail score. Candidates must pass both the 300-320 SWITCH exam and the 300-320 dumps SWITCH practical exam to obtain certification.

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1Z0-808 practice exams

The latest  1Z0-808 practice exams  (30Q&As)

QUESTION 1
What command can be used to configure the baud rate on a serial port?
A. setserial
B. serialconfig
C. ttyconfig
D. setty
E. serialmode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
When compiling kernel modules, which make target will remove most generated files but keep the config file and
enough build support to build external modules? (Please enter only the make target and no other words)
Correct Answer: clean

QUESTION 3
What command can beusedtoinstall a Perl module (\’$module\’)from the CPAN archive?
A. perl -MCPAN -eandquot;install$moduleandquot;
B. perl -MCPAN -install $module
C. perl -i $module
D. perl -cpan -e andquot;make $moduleandquot;
E. perl -cpan -i $module
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What command is used to create an ISO9660 filesystem that can be properly accessed from a Windows 95/98
machine?
A. mkisofs -l -o backup.iso /home/joe
B. mkisofs -J -T -r -o backup.iso /home/joe
C. mkisofs -D -T -o backup.iso /home/joe
D. mkisofs -j -T -o backup.iso /home/joe
E. mkisofs -d -T -o backup.iso /home/joe
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
How can the label root be added to the ext2 file-system on /dev/sdal? Please enter the command with all parameter(s)
and/or option(s):
Correct Answer: tune2fs -L root fdevfsda1

QUESTION 6
The administrator notices that a 10GB ext2 file-system used only for data storage has approximately 540MB reserved
for root. Which command can be used to change the file-system parameters to make all of the partition available to
users, WITHOUT losing data? Please enter only the command without path, options or parameters.
Correct Answer: tune2fs

QUESTION 7
With which command can the reserved blocks on /dev/hdal be displayed? (Enter the command with all parameters
and/or options)
Correct Answer: tune2fs – 1 fdevfhda1

QUESTION 8
Which of the following sentences is true for the shown BIND9 configuration?
options {
directory andquot;/var/namedandquot;; allow-
query { any; };
allow-recursion {l27.0.0.l; l0.0.0.0/24; };
forwarders {192.168.0.4; };
forward first;
};
zoneandquot;.andquot; {
type hint;
fileandquot;named.caandquot;;
};
A. Any host, from any network, may use this server as its main DNS server.
B. If the server doesn\’t know the answer to a query, it sends a recursive query to 192.168.0.4.
C. Ifthe server doesn\’tknow the answer to a query, it sends a query toa rootDNS server.
D. Hosts in the network l0.0.0.0/24 will be able to ask for zone transfers.
E. If the server doesn\’t know the answer to a query, it sends a recursive query to 192.168.0.4 and, if this fails, it returnsa failure.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The correct command sequence to create logical volumes on a Linux system is:
A. lvcreate, pvcreate, vgcreate, mount, mke2fs
B. pvcreate, vgcreate, lvcreate, mke2fs, mount
C. vgcreate, lvcreate, pvcreate, mount, mke2fs
D. mke2fs, pvcreate, vgcreate, lvcreate, mount
E. pvcreate, lvcreate, vgcreate, mount, mke2fs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which site-specific configuration file for the shadow login suite must be modified to log login failures? Please enter the
complete path to that file.
Correct Answer: fetcflog.defs

QUESTION 11
After unpacking source code, what file is used by configure to create a final Makefile?
A. configure.in
B. configure.ac
C. Makefile.in
D. Makefile.tmpl
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
How would you run named inside a chroot jail as user nobody and group nogroup?
A. Add andquot;user nobody; group nogroup; chroot /var/named/rootandquot; to named.conf
B. named runs as nobody/nogroup by default, sojustinvoke itas andquot;name –chroot/var/named/rootandquot;
C. Use /usr/bin/chroot after running andquot;chown nobody.nogroup namedandquot;
D. Invoke named as andquot;named -t /var/named/root -u nobodyandquot;
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which RAID level provides the most redundancy?
A. RAID4
B. RAID5
C. RAID1
D. RAID0
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
When using SysV init system, the file /etc/rc3.d/S55sshd is a symbolic link. Type the full path and file name to which this
is linked.
Correct Answer: fetcfinit.dfsshd

QUESTION 15
Whatdoesthefollowingscriptdo?#!/bin/bashfind/-perm+4000|mail-sandquot;Dailyfindoutputandquot;root
A. Emails a report of all guid files to root
B. Emails a report of all important files to root
C. Emails a report of all writeable files to root
D. Emails a report of all suid files to root
E. Corrects permissions on files and emails the result to root
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
The swap usage on a system needs to be checked. Which TWO commands can be used to display a swap usage
summary?
A. swapconfig
B. cat /proc/swaps
C. swapon -s
D. swapshow
E. cat /etc/fstab
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 17
Which THREE statements concerning automounter are true?
A. The autofs service does not need to be restarted after changing automounter map files B. Only one entry in master map can refer to each map file
C. The automounter service does not rely on the kernel configuration
D. For each entry in auto.master, a separate automounter daemon is started
E. Changes to auto.master require automounter to reload its configuration
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 18
Journalling doesn\’t appear to be working on an ext3 file-system. When booting, the following line appears:
VFS: Mounted root (ext2 filesystem) readonly.
What could be causing the problem?
A. An old version of e2fsprogs is installed.
B. The kernel does not contain ext3 support.
C. The file-system is specified as ext2 in/etc/fstab.
D. The system was not shut down cleanly.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which of these tools can provide the most information about DNS queries?
A. dig
B. nslookup
C. host
D. named-checkconf
E. named-checkzone
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
A pre-compiled module has been moved to /lib/modules/andlt;kernel-versionandgt;, but \’modprobe -a andlt;module-
nameandgt;\’ fails to load it. What needs to be done to enable usage of this module?
A. make modules_install must be run.
B. depmod must be run.
C. The kernel must be re-compiled.
D. modules.conf or modprobe.conf must be edited. E. The system must be rebooted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
What is a significant difference between host and zone keys generated by dnssec-keygen?
A. There is no difference.
B. Zone key files contain a public and private key.
C. Host keys files contain a public and private key.
D. Host keys must always be generated if DNSSEC is used; zone keys are optional
E. Zone keys must always be generated if DNSSEC is used; host keys are optional
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
According to the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard (FHS), what is the path to the Linux kernel source and may be a
symbolic link to the real Linux source code? (Please specify the full path with no version information.)
Correct Answer: /usr/src/linux, /usr/src/linux/

QUESTION 23
After configuring a new 2.4 series kernel, all dependencies, such as include files, need to be created. How can this be
achieved? Please enter the complete command.
Correct Answer: make dep

QUESTION 24
What is the purpose of vgextend?
A. Extend a volume group\’s footprint on disk
B. Add physical volumes to a volume group
C. Increase the number of days between scheduled error checking
D. Create a volume group which uses all available space on disk
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
The server has two network cards. The driver for the first card is the module 8139too and the driver for the second card
is the module ne2k-pci. How is it possible to ensure that the card using the 8139too driver is detected before the
cardusingthene2k-pcidriver?
A. modprobe 8139too dev=eth0; modprobe ne2k-pci dev=ethl
B. install mod 8139too; install mod ne2k-pci C. modprobe eth0=8139too, ethl=ne2k-pci
D. ifconfig modadd eth0=8139too, ethl=ne2k-pci
E. modprobe 8139too; modprobe ne2k-pci
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which option, when passed to the hostname command, will return the name of the DNS domain? (Provide only the
option)
Correct Answer: -d

QUESTION 27
Which file contains configuration data for automount? Please enter the complete path.
Correct Answer: fetcfauto.master

QUESTION 28
Consider the following output from df -i:
Filesystem Inodes IUsed IFree IUse% Mounted on /dev/md0 1966080 45044 192l036 3% / none 125731 712 125019
1% /dev none 127729 1 127728 l% /dev/shm none 127729 17 127712 l% /var/run none 127729 2127727 l% /var/lock
none l966080 45044 192l036 3% /var/lib/ureadahead/debugfs /dev/sdel 0 0 0 – /mnt
What filesystem does /dev/sdel most likely use?
A. ext2
B. ext3
C. reiserfs
D. xfs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
After calling ./configure with its appropriate parameters and no errors, what would be the next command to run?
Correct Answer: make all -ormake

QUESTION 30
After a crash, the system needs to be booted into runlevel l. Which option(s) must be typed at the LILO prompt to
achieve this, assuming that the working kernel
image is called \’linux\’?
Correct Answer: linux 1

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Latest Microsoft Field Engineer CISM Exam Dumps

QUESTION 1
Which troubleshooting tool does an engineer use to determine whether a cat! is being subjected to
traversal bandwidth restrictions?
A. registration log
B. calls log
C. search history log
D. event log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which method does the Conductor use to determine the source of an incoming call to a rendezvous type
conference?
A. conference IP addresses
B. location IP addresses
C. management IP addresses
D. source IP addresses
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Where in the TMS application does an engineer add individual endpoints or infrastructure to the TMS
database?
A. System > Navigator
B. System > System Overview
C. System > Provisioning
D. System > Manage Dial Plan
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Cisco Meeting Server can be deployed using three different deployment models, which option lists
deployment models that are the best solution to accommodate fail-over?
A. single combined server deployment
B. scaled and resilient server deployment
C. scaled and combined server deployment
D. single split server deployment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
In an H.323 call that is not interworked, which three signaling protocols are routed through the
Expressway? (Choose three.)
A. RTP
B. Q.931
C. C. H.254
D. RAS
E. RTCP
F. H.245
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 6
Which two methods can be used in TMSto schedule conferences? (Choose two.)
A. Administrative Tools > Configuration > Conference Settings
B. Booking > New Conference
C. Scheduling > New Conference
D. Reporting > Conferences
E. Monitoring > Conference Control Center
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
An engineer wants to add a domain to a numeric E.164 alias dialed by an H.323 endpoint. Which opinion
is the Cisco recommended method to add this domain in the Expressway configurations?
A. transforms
B. user policy
C. service preference
D. call policy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which option do Enterprise settings on Cisco Spark determine?
A. where user information comes from
B. how connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment
C. bot integration
D. API integration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement about Call Service Connect on a Cisco Spark Hybrid deployment is true?
A. Call Service Connect does not require media traversal capabilities or licenses to be installed.
B. Mutual TLS can be used to deploy Call Service Connect, but it is not required.
C. Call Service Aware does not need be deployed to use Call Service Connect.
D. Call Service Connect allows integration between Cisco Spark and Cisco Unified Communications
Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which statement about setting up a call bridge cluster for a resilient and scalable Cisco Meeting Server
deployment is true?
A. Call bridges can connect to databases in full mesh.
B. Call bridges only connect to the master database.
C. Only one call bridge should be configured per domain in a database cluster.
D. Call bridges can read/write to any database in a cluster at anytime.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about subzones are true? (Choose two.)A. Endpointsare assigned to a particular subzone by their alias or IP subnet.
B. Subzones require the use of endpoint authentication
C. Subzones are used for routing calls to peers in other parts of the network.
D. Endpoints require the use of other endpoints for authentication
E. Subzones are used for bandwidth and authentication control of a logical grouping of endpoints within
the registration list of the Expressway
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about endpoint registration authentication are true? (Choose two.)
A. Authentication credentials can be stored in the local database of the Expressway.
B. SIP endpoints always need authentication credentials.
C. The endpoint and Expressway must be configured and synchronized with an NTP server delivering an
identical time stamp.
D. Expressways and endpoints do not need to be synchronized with identical NTP timestamps.
E. When a subzone is set for “Treat as Authenticated”, the endpoint must have the correct authentications
configured.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which SIP message is sent from the called endpoint after the call request is accepted?
A. “Hello”
B. “404 OK”
C. “Connect”
D. “200 OK”
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which H.323 functionality exists on the Cisco Meeting Server?
A. H.323 registration, call control and H.323-to-SIP Interworking
B. H.323-to-SIP Interworking
C. H.323 registration and call only
D. H.323 registration and H.323-to-SIP Interworking, but no call control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which description of the role of the service preference in the Cisco Conductor is true?
A. It consists of a group of conference aliases and it determines, in order of priority, which alias to choose
for a conference.
B. It consists of one or more bridge pools and it determines which of these pools, in order of priority, to
use for a conference.
C. It determines the bandwidth that is supplied by the service provider.
D. It determines the conference template to be used for a particular conference based upon alias.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
While scheduling a CMS conference on TMS, an engineer notices that it will not add a WebEx meeting as
a participant. Which option is the possible issue?A. WebEx requires a domain be added to the CMS.
B. WebEx can be added to conferences only using Telepresence Server/Conductor.
C. A SIP trunk is required between the WebEx server and CMS.
D. The WebEx server address must be properly configured in TMS and the CMS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which description of Cisco WebEx Telepresence is true?
A. It is the Cisco term for a fully enabled on-premises collaboration solution.
B. It is a solution that allows on-premises endpoint to register to the WebEx meeting Center.
C. It allows endpoints on-premises to register to Cisco infrastructure in the cloud.
D. It is a Cisco WebEx solution that allows integration between WebEx Meeting Center and on-premises
collaboration solutions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which two statements about the assignment of endpoints to a subzone are true? (Choose two.)
A. A registration restriction rule must be configured that matches the endpoint’s alias or IP subnet.
B. Endpoints making a traversal call must be registered to the traversal subzone.
C. By default, all endpoints are registered to the default subzone.
D. By default, all endpoints are registered to the neighbor subzone.
E. A subzone membership rule must be configured that matches the endpoint’s alias or IP subnet.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 19
An engineer wants to use TMS to send registration configurations automatically every Sunday at 3:00 a.m.
to a group of endpoints in a remote office. Where does the engineer navigate to create this setting?
A. Systems> Manage Dial Plan
B. Systems > Configuration Templates
C. Systems > Provisioning
D. Systems > Navigator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
An engineer wants to only allow the registration of endpoints with aliases containing cisco.com asthe
domain.
Which option accomplishes this task?
A. Set the restriction policy to “Deny” and include the expression.*@*in the deny list.
B. Set the restriction policy to “Allow” and include the expression\l@ cisco.com in the allow list.
C. Set the restriction policy to “Allow” and include the expression. *@cisco. com in the allow list.
D. Set the restriction policy to “None” and include the expression \1@ cisco.com in the allow list.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which two primary protocols does TMS use to communicate with endpoints and infrastructure? (Choose
two.)
A. BFCDB. SIP
C. HTTPS
D. H.323
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 22
Which option governs the order in which the search rules query the local zone versus neighbored
Expressways?
A. priority number
B. call processing order
C. call policy
D. target zone
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which two products are available as multipoint conferencing options in the CMR Premise platform?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Expressway
B. Cisco Telepresence Multipoint Switch
C. Telepresence Server
D. Cisco VCS
E. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 24
Which option is the correct format for a SIP alias?
A. 212-555-1212
B. +12125551212
C. John.doe@cisco.com
D. John.doe
Correct Answer: C
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